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Exam Code: FC0-GR1
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Green IT Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following terms is used when printing data on both the front and the back of paper?
A. Scaling
B. Copying
C. Duplex
D. Simplex
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following can conserve energy in a server room?
A. Sealing all potential cold air leaks
B. Installing additional cooling fans
C. Setting the temperature lower
D. Replacing the UPS with a generator
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company would like to dispose of old toner units. Which of the following would be the MOST
appropriate course of action to take?
A. Use an approved recycling program either through a vendor or local government agency.
B. Old toner disposal is the responsibility of the manufacturer. Call the appropriate number at the
respective company.
C. Toss the units into the trash. Toner cartridges are biodegradable.
D. Clean out the toner cartridges with warm water and place the clean units into the recycling collection.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A user reports that their cell phone battery is dead and cannot hold a charge. Which of the following
should be done when disposing of the old battery?
A. Recycle the battery.
B. Store the battery.
C. Place battery in a sealed plastic bag.
D. Disassemble the battery.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A bank runs 50 workstations and would like to decrease its electricity costs, while not sacrificing
functionality. All of the workstations are high-end performance units that are intended to be used for
CAD-like applications. Analysts benefit from the added performance, but tellers and associates could use
more minimalist systems. Which of the following methods would decrease the banks electricity and
hardware costs?
A. Swap all teller and associate machines with servers.
B. Swap all teller and associate machines with thin clients.
C. Swap all teller and associate machines with low-profile high-end workstations.
D. Swap all teller and associate machines with laptops.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following technologies can save server space and cooling requirements?
A. Energy star ratings
B. Active solar panels
C. Network storage array
D. Blade servers
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following methods effectively removes data from a hard drive prior to disposal? (Select
TWO).
A. Use the remove hardware OS feature
B. Formatting the hard drive
C. Physical destruction
D. Degauss the drive
E. Overwriting data with 1s and 0s by utilizing software
Answer: CE

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NO.8 Which of the following is the recommended disposal method for used computers?
A. Trash can
B. Burial
C. Recycling center
D. Storage shed
Answer: C

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NO.9 The power saving state in which a computer cuts power to all its unneeded parts and copies the RAM
content to the hard drive is called:
A. hibernate.
B. shutdown.
C. sleep.
D. hypervisor.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following technologies allows a single piece of hardware to host multiple operating
systems simultaneously?
A. Virtualization
B. SMTP servers
C. ThinNet clients
D. Terminal servers
Answer: A

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NO.11 A large company has over 500 computers that currently stay powered on indefinitely. None of the
systems are used after the company closes at 5 p.m. Which of the following would be the MOST effective
way for the company to save on electricity usage?
A. Set the computers for automatic log-off after one hour of inactivity.
B. Institute a policy of either shutdown or sleep mode an hour after close.
C. Turn on the Wake on LAN functionality for all computers.
D. Schedule all patching to be done during work hours.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A corporation plans to replace older office PCs with energy efficient personal computers in their 24 hour
help desk department. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?
A. Tablet notebooks with LCD monitors
B. Thin clients with LCD monitors
C. Thin clients with CRT monitors
D. Notebook computers with LCD monitors
Answer: B

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NO.13 A large company would like to roll out thin clients to all retail terminals on its next upgrade. Which of
the following are potential risks of this IT plan?
A. Power consumption; thin clients use more energy than comparable workstations and therefore have a
larger energy footprint.
B. Single point of failure; if the thin client server goes down all machines are without functionality.
C. Centralized administration; IT staff cannot rely on localized group policy settings.
D. High cost of terminals; compared to traditional workstations, thin clients are very expensive and require
more maintenance.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following would a company implement to help reduce the cost of electricity?
A. Shutdown/power policies
B. Redundant power supplies
C. Use optical mice
D. Social engineering policy
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following needs to be recycled due to dangerous amounts of gas contained inside its
housing?
A. CRT
B. Toner
C. Surge suppressor
D. LCD
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following would allow a company to conserve energy and still provide a functional service
to its employees?
A. Configure all workstations with higher RPM fans
B. Use CRTs instead of LCD monitors
C. Use NAS to reduce the number of file servers
D. Configure all printers to print on single-side with low resolution
Answer: C

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NO.17 A small business currently has a server room with a large cooling system that is appropriate for its size.
The location of the server room is the top level of a building. The server room is filled with incandescent
lighting that needs to continuously stay on for security purposes. Which of the following would be the
MOST cost-effective way for the company to reduce the server rooms energy footprint?
A. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving neon lighting.
B. Set an auto-shutoff policy for all the lights in the room to reduce energy consumption after hours.
C. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving fluorescent lighting.
D. Consolidate server systems into a lower number of racks, centralizing airflow and cooling in the room.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following standard symbols signifies that a packaged item was produced using
hazardous materials industry guidelines?
A. Energy Star
B. Energy Star 2.0
C. PCI-E
D. RoHS
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following will allow multiple operating systems to run on one workstation?
A. FireWire
B. KVM
C. Virtualization
D. Terminal servers
Answer: C

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NO.20 A small business currently has four separate servers, three of which perform low-overhead tasks with
small memory footprints. How could the company BEST reduce power consumption among these four
servers, while not sacrificing functionality?
A. Enable each server's Cool 'n' Quiet and/or SpeedStep functionality so that processing power is
conserved.
B. Enforce auto-shutdown routines on all four servers for after-hours power saving while the office is
closed.
C. Consolidate the four servers onto the best two, combining them logically by tasks and memory
consumption.
D. Consolidate the four servers onto the most powerful machine using virtualization.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JK0-U21
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 241 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a parallel port mode?
A. EPP/ECP
B. ECP
C. EPS
D. EPP
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following devices uses charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A. Touch screen
B. Printer
C. Touchpad
D. Image Scanner
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many keys does a computer keyboard have?
A. 85
B. 112
C. 104
D. 64
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT an analog display standard?
A. VGA
B. DVI
C. CGA
D. SVGA
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following types of formatting can only be done by the manufacturer?
A. Quick formatting
B. High-level formatting
C. Low-level formatting
D. Initial-level formatting
Answer: C

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NO.6 What amount of data can a sector hold?
A. 1000 bytes
B. 512 bytes
C. 625 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is the process of bypassing the CPU?
A. Caching
B. DMA
C. Spoofing
D. Spooling
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following components of a laptop is NOT upgradeable?
A. RAM
B. NIC
C. Hard disk
D. Motherboard
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. RAM
B. HDD
C. CD-ROM
D. CPU
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. Processor
B. LAN Card
C. RAM
D. HDD
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following expansion buses is used in Laptops?
A. PCI
B. PCMCIA
C. MCA
D. ISA
Answer: B

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NO.12 Identify whether the statement given below is true of false. "A Secure Digital (SD) card is
slightly thicker than a MultiMedia Card (MMC)."
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is NOT an expansion slot?
A. MCA
B. EISA
C. PCI
D. USB
Answer: D

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NO.14 How many colors you can have in a 24-bit color system?
A. 65,536
B. 24,000,000
C. 16,777,216
D. 36,733,216
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following terms refers to printing on both sides of the paper?
A. Duplex printing
B. Simplex printing
C. Dual printing
D. Multiplex-printing
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by IEEE 1394b port?
A. 256 Kbps
B. 800 Mbps
C. 256 Mbps
D. 400 Mbps
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAS-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner)
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Total Q&A: 272 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want the clients and servers in your
organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on
the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.6 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.12 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.14 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.17 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 A client wants to take their old VCR tapes and put them on a DVD. Which of the following
expansion cards would need to be installed in a computer to perform this task?
A. TV tuner
B. Video graphics
C. Sound
D. Video capture
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following can be used to change fan speeds?
A. Device manager
B. BIOS
C. Power options
D. Action center
Answer: B

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NO.3 A client wants to store video and music in one central location and stream it to multiple
devices.
Which of the following would BEST fill this need?
A. Home theater
B. Virtualization workstation
C. Home server
D. Gaming
Answer: C

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NO.4 The helpdesk technician has been tasked to reinstall the OS on a desktop and has already
inserted the OS install disk in the CD-ROM. Which of the following would MOST likely need to be
configured within the BIOS to continue reinstalling the OS?
A. BIOS password
B. Flash BIOS for firmware upgrade
C. Boot sequence
D. Clock speeds
Answer: C

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NO.5 Besides the CPU, which of the following components might have their own heatsink?
A. Audio card
B. RAID controller
C. Graphics card
D. Hard drive
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following BEST describes the function of DHCP?
A. Blocks MAC address with security violations
B. Translates IP addresses to names
C. Encrypts data traffic on a network
D. Assigns IP addresses on a network
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following cable types has the MAXIMUM transfer rate of 1 Gbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following socket types is for an Intel CPU?
A. F
B. 940
C. AM3
D. 1156
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following computer components are located on the Northbridge? (Select TWO).
A. Hard drive
B. CPU
C. Fan
D. RAM
E. Audio
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which of the following memory features allows for the protection against random
inconsistencies
in the transfer of the data?
A. Low latency
B. Dual channel
C. ECC
D. Single channel
Answer: C

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NO.1 Before you can conduct usability testing, you should:
A. identify your potential customers.
B. identify browser compatibility issues.
C. publish your site to a production server.
D. identify the most-traveled path of your site.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following can help customers complete purchases more quickly?
A. A well-planned site hierarchy
B. Detailed descriptions of products
C. Product testimonials from other customers
D. An RSS feed directing customers to a site blog
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following pieces of information will best help you determine the number of transactions
your database server can accommodate?
A. Maximum uptime requirements
B. Minimum installation requirements
C. The number of database tables required
D. The number of concurrent user connections
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are considering payment methods for a business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce site. Which
payment method would be most appropriate for your needs?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Purchase order and post-purchase billing
C. Purchase request and pre-purchase billing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have just developed a business-to-consumer (B2C) Web site that sells wetsuits for scuba diving.
You want to partner with another company to start a banner ad program. What sort of company would be
the most effective choice for a partner?
A. A company that sells canoes and small boats
B. A company that sells wetsuits mainly to surfers
C. A company that sells tanks, masks and snorkels
D. A company that sells a different brand of wetsuits
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following describes a Sharable Content Object Reference Model (SCORM) manifest?
A. An XHTML document that is SCORM-conformant
B. An XML document that describes a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
C. A relational database that contains Sharable Content Object (SCO) information
D. A style sheet that gives structure to the page containing a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is the most effective strategy for conducting an opt-in e-mail marketing
campaign?
A. Send e-mail messages once a day to initial contacts for the first two weeks.
B. Send e-mail messages once every two weeks to follow up on an initial contact.
C. Create an executable Java application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
D. Create an executable ActiveX application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Nain is a front-desk receptionist at a large corporation. After a recent payday for the employees, Nain
received a phone call from someone claiming to be an employee who was out-of-state on an assignment.
This person asked Nain whether his check had been deposited, and to verify that the check was written to
a specific account name and bank routing number. This occurrence may be a type of attack known as a:
A. phishing attack.
B. pharming attack.
C. denial-of-service attack.
D. social-engineering attack.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following describes a referrer program?
A. One site pays another site for the traffic it sends; traffic is directed in one direction.
B. One site pays several sites for traffic it sends; traffic is generated in multiple directions.
C. A third party verifies referrals from one site to another site as traffic flows from one to the other.
D. Referrals occur only after a company pays a commission for them; traffic is directed in one direction.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is a common cause of a buffer overflow?
A. Unchecked data entered into the buffer
B. Unnecessary services running in the buffer
C. Repeated attempts to guess a password stored in the buffer
D. Unexpected SQL statements causing database information to be revealed in the buffer
Answer: A

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NO.11 What security protocol typically allows Web-based applications to pass data securely by providing an
encrypted channel?
A. SET
B. SSH
C. SSL
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.12 Online credit-card transactions require a payment gateway. Payment gateway software can be
installed on your Web server or hosted online. After you install a payment gateway, you must:
A. develop an effective marketing strategy.
B. install the e-commerce database system.
C. select and establish a compatible merchant account.
D. configure the gateway to work with your e-commerce server.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You will be hiring someone to localize your e-commerce site in order to reach a specific audience.
Which of the following is most essential for the person you hire to effectively complete the job?
A. The ability to communicate clearly with the team that created the site
B. An understanding of the scripting language and database type used on the site
C. An understanding of the language and culture of the audience you want to reach
D. An understanding of the importance of the just-in-time (JIT) process to the company
Answer: C

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NO.14 Under Secure Electronic Transactions (SET), which three parties involved in a transaction are required
to use the SET protocol?
A. The merchant, the bank, the customer
B. The wholesaler, the merchant, the bank
C. The broker, the merchant, the customer
D. The customer, the credit card company, the bank
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing customer
relationship management (CRM) and personalization?
A. Online instant storefront
B. Mid-level online instant storefront
C. Mid-level offline instant storefront
D. High-level offline instant storefront
Answer: D

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NO.16 Paul conducts business in a country that levies a value-added tax (VAT) on all goods purchased within
its borders. What must Paul configure in order to add a VAT automatically to the total cost of a purchase?
A. The shopping cart
B. The payment gateway
C. The inventory database
D. The purchasing database
Answer: A

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NO.17 An online instant storefront can build community by:
A. granting quantity discounts.
B. creating an e-mail newsletter.
C. using banner exchange programs.
D. providing a public listing of customer e-mail addresses.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the name of the electronic funds transfer (EFT) system governed by the United States and
designed to provide the clearing of electronic payments between banks?
A. The National Clearing House (NCH) network
B. The Automated Clearing House (ACH) network
C. The Receiving Depository Financial Institution (RDFI)
D. The Originating Depository Financial Institution (ODFI)
Answer: B

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NO.19 The main purpose of monitoring e-commerce Web server resources and performance (including
bandwidth, uptime, downtime and network usage) is to ensure:
A. site availability.
B. visitor satisfaction.
C. cost-effectiveness.
D. increased profitability.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are transitioning from a traditional "brick-and-mortar?storefront that accepts credit cards to a new
e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
C. Credit card with offline processing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: C

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NO.1 Consider the following relation definition: STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name:
variable length character string length 20 NOT NULL) Primary Key Student_Number
HOUSING( Housing_ID: integer NOT NULL Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Building: variable
length character string length 25 NOT NULL) Primary Key Housing_ID Foreign Key Student_Number
References STUDENT(Student_Number) ON DELETE NO CHECK ON UPDATE Which integrity
constraint is violated in this relation definition?
A.Entity integrity
B.Domain constraint
C.Referential integrity
D.Enterprise constraint
Answer:C

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NO.2 The exhibit shows a table called Student Relation that tracks all information related to a students
courses, professors and sites. What would be the consequence of removing all records for a student with
the ID 1311?
A.Only an update anomaly would occur.
B.An insertion anomaly would occur.
C.A deletion anomaly would occur.
D.An update anomaly and a deletion anomaly would occur.
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes a composite key?
A.A composite key is a primary key and foreign key that consists of the first two attributes of a relation.
B.A composite key is a primary or foreign key defined by its parent key attributes.
C.A composite key is a foreign key that consists of the same attributes as the primary key from a related
table.
D.A composite key is a primary or foreign key that consists of two or more attributes of a relation.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Consider the Registration relation shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would
return all tuples that have course codes beginning with the letter M?
A.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code = M#;
B.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code LIKE M_;
C.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code LIKE M%;
D.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code = M%;
Answer:C

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NO.5 Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would
return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?
A.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80 OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80 AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate BETWEEN (80, 90);
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which relational algebraic operation is used to select specific columns (attributes) from a relation?
A.Union
B.Difference
C.Projection
D.Intersection
Answer:C

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NO.7 Consider the Recreation relation in the exhibit. A data operation that changes one of the tuples for
Student_ID 1003 must be performed. It is necessary to change one of the activities from swimming to
tennis. The Student_ID and Activity attributes make up the primary key for the Recreation relation. All
related information must be altered, as well. Which SQL statement or statements would best accomplish
this?
A.UPDATE Recreation SET Activity, Activity_Fee ('Tennis', 100) WHERE Student_ID = 1003;
B.UPDATE TABLE Recreation SET ACTIVITY = 'Tennis', Activity_Fee = 100 WHERE Student_ID = 1003
AND Activity = Swimming;
C.UPDATE Recreation SET Activity = 'Tennis', Activity_Fee = 100 WHERE Student_ID = 1003 AND
Activity = 'Swimming';
D.DELETE Activity FROM Recreation WHERE Student_ID = 1003; INSERT INTO Recreation VALUES
(1003, 'Tennis', 100);
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which of the following best describes the information contained in the data dictionary (or system
catalog)?
A.Metadata
B.Data model
C.Table data
D.Metafile
Answer:A

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NO.9 Consider the entity-relation (ER) diagram shown in the exhibit. When the logical database design phase
is completed, which of the following is a valid DBDL description of the base relations for the ER diagram?
A.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name: integer NOT
NULL) Primary Key Class_Num
B.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name: integer NOT
NULL) Primary Key Class_Num Foreign Key Class_Num References STUDENT
C.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number STU_CLASS( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Class_Num:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Class_Num
D.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number STU_CLASS( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Class_Num:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Class_Num
Answer:D

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NO.10 Consider the following SQL statement and the Orders relation shown in the exhibit: What is the output
of this SQL statement? Answer & Explanation Correct Answer C Explanations No more information
available
Answer:

NO.11 Which of the following describes two desirable characteristics of a primary key?
A.A primary key should be a value that may be null and may change over time.
B.A primary key should be a value that is not null and will never change.
C.A primary key should consist of meaningful data and a value that can be changed if needed.
D.A primary key should not consist of meaningful data and a value that can be changed if needed.
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which of the following occurs in a relation when records are added or removed?
A.The number of domains changes.
B.The attributes in the table change.
C.The cardinality of the relation is fixed but the degree varies.
D.The degree of the relation is fixed but the cardinality varies.
Answer:D

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NO.13 Consider the Information Engineering diagram in the exhibit showing a conceptual data model of the
relations BUILDING and RESIDENT. What is the next step in refining the data model?
A.Create intermediate entities.
B.Create a logical data model.
C.Resolve many-to-many relationahips.
D.Identify and resolve complex relationships.
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which pair of relational algebraic operations requires union compatibility?
A.Projection and Cartesian product
B.Selection and projection
C.Intersection and difference
D.Cartesian product and intersection
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which process is used to prevent the current database operation from reading or writing a data item
while that data item is being accessed by another operation?
A.Lock
B.Deadlock
C.Timestamp
D.Batch
Answer:A

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NO.16 Consider the following four database design activities: 1 - Design user views. 2 - Select a DBMS. 3 -
Apply normalization. 4 - Determine entities. Which choice shows the correct ordering of these activities,
from first to last, by assigned numbers?
A.1, 2, 3, 4
B.3, 4, 1, 2
C.4, 1, 3, 2
D.4, 2, 3, 1
Answer:D

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NO.17 Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of
the database design life cycle. Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?
A.Information Engineering (IE) data model
B.Corporate data model
C.Database requirements model
D.Entity Relation Data (ERD) model
Answer:B

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NO.18 What is the highest normal form of the relation(s) shown in the exhibit?
A.Second normal form
B.First normal form
C.Boyce-Codd normal form
D.Third normal form
Answer:A

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NO.19 Consider the following relation definitions: STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name:
variable length character string length 20 ) Primary Key Student_Number HOUSING( Housing_ID: integer
NOT NULL Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Building: variable length character string length 25 )
Primary Key Housing_ID Foreign Key Student_Number References STUDENT(Student_Number) ON
DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE CASCADE What are the referential constraints for the relations
defined in these relation definitions?
A.There is no relationship between changes in STUDENT(Student_Number) and
HOUSING(Student_Number).
B.When STUDENT(Student_Number) is changed or deleted, this modification or deletion will
automatically be reflected in HOUSING(Student_Number).
C.Modifications to HOUSING(Student_Number) are automatically reflected in changes to
STUDENT(Student_Number), but deletions are not permitted.
D.Modifications to STUDENT(Student_Number) are automatically reflected in changes to
HOUSING(Student_Number). For a deletion to occur from STUDENT(Student_Number), it must first
occur in HOUSING(Student_Number).
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which characteristic is an advantage of a database management system?
A.Data files are owned and maintained by the users.
B.Database administration is simplified.
C.A standard method can be used to access the database.
D.Data is decentralized.
Answer:C

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Exam Name: Citrix (CCEA XP MetaFrame Secure Access Manager Administration)
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Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How is an access server farm identified?
A.By the IP address of the primary server.
B.By the machine name of the primary server.
C.By the name of the first access center created.
D.By the name of the domain where the access center server farm resides.
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A08
Exam Name: Citrix (Advanced Administration for Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows for Windows Server 2008)
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Total Q&A: 195 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 With the least administrative effort, what could an administrator do to verify that the Citrix XenApp
servers in an environment have the same hotfix revision?
A. Run the CPATCH /L command and compare the hotfixes
B. Create a hotfix list and compare the servers using the Access Management Console
C. Use the Program and Features option in the Windows Control Panel and compare the hotfixes
D. Create a new hotfix list and compare the servers to the hotfix list in the XenApp Advanced
Configuration tool
Answer: B

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NO.2 Scenario: Sessions are NOT being directed to a new Citrix XenApp server in a farm. The
administrator investigates further and notices that this server is reporting a load of 20000.
This indicates that the server _________ . (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. is NOT licensed properly
B. processor is running at 100%
C. does NOT have a load evaluator assigned
D. has failed a Health Monitoring and Recovery test
Answer: A

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NO.3 Scenario: During testing, a new application crashes on Citrix XenApp servers.After investigating, the
administrator identifies that the application is NOT compatible with the virtual memory management
feature, which has been enabled.
How can the administrator prevent the application from being affected by the memory management
feature without disabling memory management for all applications?
A. Add the application to the .SFO file
B. Stream the application to the server
C. Add the application to the Exclude Application list
D. Remove the application from the memory management list in the registry
Answer: C

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NO.4 Scenario: A Citrix XenApp server in a farm is heavily loaded; logon time has increased significantly.
The CPU resources are dominated by a particular application. A single user running that application is
affecting all the other users connected to the Citrix XenApp server.
How would the administrator resolve this issue?
A. Assign the Advanced Load Evaluator to all servers
B. Enable Fair sharing of CPU between sessions
on the entire farm
C. Create a new load evaluator to load manage the application by CPU utilization
D. Configure a special Health Monitoring and Recovery item to show when the CPU utilization is high
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two reasons would cause an administrator to exclude certain applications from Memory
Optimization before testing them? (Choose two.)
A. Some application components are digitally signed
B. The applications allow Windows to load the .DLL files it calls
C. The applications are memory-intensive when run in multiple sessions
D. The applications use Windows Rights Management to protect its .DLL files
E. The applications download additional components from the Internet during installation
Answer: AD

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NO.6 What should an administrator do to troubleshoot an issue involving a single user who is unable to save
files to his or her local desktop when other users can save files to their local desktops?
A. Check the properties of the Citrix XenApp farm
B. Check the permissions on the local client drive
C. Check the properties of the published application
D. Check the permissions on the Citrix XenApp server drive
Answer: B

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NO.7 Scenario: A Citrix XenApp farm consist of one data center that hosts several dozen Citrix XenApp
servers. An administrator in the farm is creating a disaster recovery plan and has secured data center
space in Timbuktu. After provisioning a dozen servers to that location, the administrator begins
configuring zone preference and failover so that, if necessary, all users can access applications from the
disaster site.
Once properly configured, users can leverage the latest __________ when accessing the farm through a
_________ . (Choose the three correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. Client for Java; XenApp Web site
B. Client for Linux; XenApp Web site
C. Plugin for Hosted Apps; XenApp Services site
D. Windows CE-based client; custom ICA connection
E. XenApp Plugin for Hosted Apps; Program neighbourhood interface
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 Scenario: Citrix administrators in a remote office are experiencing slow performance when using the
Access Management Console.The environment uses a Microsoft SQL 2005 data store, and there are 300
Citrix XenApp servers in the farm.
What could be the cause of the slow performance?
A. The IMA service is NOT started
B. Too many servers are in the farm
C. Zone preference and failover is NOT configured
D. Latency between the remote location and the data store server
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two commands can an administrator use to check for disconnected ICA sessions? (Choose two)
A. QWINSTA
B. QFARM /APP
C. QFARM /DISC
D. QFARM /LOAD
E. QUERY LOGON
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Scenario: An administrator configured Citrix XenApp in an environment and used a SQL Server data
store. The SQL server data store database has been moved to another SQL server.
Which two steps must be performed on the Citrix XenApp servers to complete the relocation of the data
store? (Choose two.)
A. Run the CHFARM command
B. Create a new DSN file that points to the relocated database
C. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA service configuration on all servers in the
farm
D. Run the DSMAINT MIGRATE command to change the IMA service configuration on all servers in the
farm
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Scenario: A company has just recovered from a major power failure. The administrator at the company
currently leverages a single Citrix XenApp server farm with two sites for application delivery. The
administrator set up a zone preference and failover policy which successfully directed users to the
secondary site during the power failure.
How can the administrator switch the users back to the primary site now that it is recovered?
A. Reassign the policy filters to a different user group
B. Instruct users to log off their sessions and log on again
C. Configure a custom load evaluator by client IP address and assign it to the primary site servers
D. Edit the existing zone preference and failover policy and make the secondary site the Primary site
E. Configure a new zone preference and failover policy and assign the secondary site as Backup site 1
Answer: B

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NO.12 In which situation should the CPU Utilization Management/CPU Rebalancer
service be set to start
automatically?
A. Citrix XenApp runs on a single processor server
B. The Resource Manager tool is used to monitor CPU sharing
C. It is desirable to monitor CPU sharing using the Access Management Console
D. Multiple instances of a single-threaded application are running on the same CPU
Answer: D

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NO.13 An administrator must configure streamed applications to work for some Windows-based laptop users
who may NOT be connected to the corporate network when working remotely.
Which two steps must the administrator perform in order to meet the needs of this environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Configure laptop users for offline access
B. Install the XenApp Web Plugin on each laptop
C. Configure the application profiles for offline access
D. Enable the published application for offline access
Answer: AD

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NO.14 Scenario: Users are reporting that their printers are NOT auto-creating. The administrator investigates
and discovers that the Citrix Print Manager Service is NOT running. When attempting to start the service,
the administrator receives the error shown in the attached screenshot.
Click the Exhibit button to view the error message.
Which two actions could resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Recreate the Ctx_cpsvcuser account
B. Recreate the network Service account
C. Recreate the Ctx_streamingsvc account
D. Ensure the Ctx_cpsvcuser account has logon as service rights
E. Ensure the Network Service account has logon as service rights
F. Ensure the Ctx_streamingsvc account has logon as service rights
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Scenario: An administrator has been assigned the task of creating and testing application streaming
profiles. The initial phase of the project will only involve streaming applications to the Citrix XenApp
servers.
According to Citrix best practice, the profiler system should be installed on a _________ and include
_________ . (Choose the correct pair of options to complete the sentence)
A. Windows XP; a XenApp plugin for testing streamed applications
B. Windows Vista workstation; a XenApp plugin for testing streamed applications
C. Windows server; Standard programs that are part of the company image, such as an antivirus program
D. Windows Vista workstation; Standard programs that are part of the company image, such as an
antivirus program
Answer: C

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NO.16 Scenario: The Citrix IMA service fails to start and the IMA_RESULTS_ACCESS_DENIED
error
message is presented. A SQL data store database is used in the environment. After several
troubleshooting steps, the administrator decides to run the CHFARM command.
Which two options are available when running the CHFARM command to resolve the IMA service error?
(Choose two.)
A. Create a new farm
B. Join an existing farm
C. Reconfigure the existing farm
D. Recreate the Local Host Cache
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Scenario: An administrator creates a new load evaluator in a Citrix XenApp farm. During routine
investigations the administrator discovers that one Citrix XenApp server is hosting nearly 50% more
sessions than any other Citrix XenApp server in the farm.
Which object can the administrator view to identify which load evaluators have been applied to each
server?
A. Log tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
B. Farm Properties in the Access Management Console
C. Server Properties in the Access Management Console
D. Contents tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
E. Usage reports tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
Answer: E

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NO.18 An administrator needs to allow client drive mapping using the ICAClient.ADM template. Drives A
through D should NOT be mapped Correct configuration into the dialogue box to disallow the mapping of
drives A through D.?
A. A-D
B. A:D
C. ABCD
D. A to D
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which Citrix service directly depends on the IMA service?
A. WMI
B. Licensing
C. XTE Server
D. Print Manager
Answer: A

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NO.20 Scenario: Since a recent server consolidation project which reduced the number of servers in the farm,
users cannot access published applications on the Web Interface site.The Citrix administrators can
access the Citrix XenApp servers through remote desktop connections but cannot discover the farm from
the Access Management Console.
What could be preventing the Access Management Console from discovering the farm?
A. Citrix XenApp servers were NOT rebooted
B. The SQL database for the XenApp data store was moved
C. The users do NOT have the latest XenApp Plugin installed
D. Servers that were hosting applications were removed from the farm
Answer: A

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